[erlang-questions] Overriding built-in functions in a module
Fri Jun 11 20:31:25 CEST 2010
Richard O'Keefe writes:
> On Jun 10, 2010, at 1:40 AM, Raimo Niskanen wrote:
> > I might argue that since it is a call to an exported function it
> > must be to
> > some *other* function, not the local with the same name.
> Why? Suppose we have a module
> bar(N) when N > 0 -> ?MODULE:bar(N-1);
> bar(0) -> 'DONG!'.
> In what sense is the call to ?MODULE:bar/1 a call to some *other*
> function than the bar/1 here before us?
Because in Erlang a call with both module and function names
supplied is a "remote" call, which always invokes the latest
version of the module whose name was given. So if a process P
is executing code in version 1 of the module, a newer version
2 of the module is loaded, and P calls ?MODULE:F(...), then
that call invokes F in version 2 of the module, not version 1.
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