Erlang improvement?

Helmut Enck-Radana <>
Wed Sep 19 20:00:05 CEST 2001


At 19:25 19-09-01, Kostis wrote:
>  > There is no ambiguity; to perhaps obfuscate things even more, the
>  > above notation is just "syntactic sugar" for
>[...]
>
>t2(M,F) ->
>   apply(M,F,[bar,42]).

I thought the question was whether f(X):g(Y) should mean f(X):(g(Y)) or 
(f(X):g)(Y).

-- Helmut

________________________________

Helmut Enck-Radana
Paradigma Software GmbH
http://www.paradigma-software.de
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